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05/31/2021

Comments

Martin Riexinger

"But this covers most of the main issues!"

The diphtongization of ū and ī before ḥ?

PhoeniX

Dear Martin,

I'm not aware of diphthongization of ū and ī before being a thing in Quranic tajwid? What exactly are you thniking about?

Arno Schmitt

I use ă, ĭ, ŭ when alif, yāʾ, wau are written but are not pronounced like fī qulūbihim <> fĭ l-ʾarḍ
Probably the two uses do not lead to confusion. -- ???

PhoeniX

Difficult to think of a context where they could be confused with one another, yes. However, I would be inclined to find distinct signs for the two.

Technically, I do not think it is necessary to write the shortened forms of ī/ū/ā before a next word that start with ʾalif al-waṣl, as the shortening is automatic in this context.

I have sometimes experimented with writing the 'shortened long vowels' as à, ì, ù

Arno Schmitt

Yes, Arabs and good Arabist like you think it unnecessary, but in Asian (Ottoman, Indian, Indonesian, Persian) maṣāḥif there is always a difference in vowel sign, sukkūn or dots.
BTW, in Indonesia two Ottoman maṣāḥif (one by Hafiz Osman the Younger, one by Muṣṭafà Naẓīf were reprinted hundred times. And they added the Indian turned ḍamma for ū

Salman1

Do you know the Classical Arabic writing rules for when a ة is changed to a ت? For example, رحمة الله is sometimes changed to رحمت الله:

3:107:
وَأَمَّا ٱلَّذِينَ ٱبْيَضَّتْ وُجُوهُهُمْ فَفِي رَحْمَةِ ٱللَّٰهِ هُمْ فِيهَا خَٰلِدُونَ

39:53:
قُلْ يَٰعِبَادِيَ ٱلَّذِينَ أَسْرَفُوا۟ عَلَىٰ أَنفُسِهِمْ لَا تَقْنَطُوا۟ مِن رَّحْمَةِ ٱللَّٰهِ ۚ إِنَّ ٱللَّٰهَ يَغْفِرُ ٱلذُّنُوبَ جَمِيعًا ۚ إِنَّهُۥ هُوَ ٱلْغَفُورُ ٱلرَّحِيمُ


7:56:
وَلَا تُفْسِدُوا۟ فِي ٱلْأَرْضِ بَعْدَ إِصْلَٰحِهَا وَٱدْعُوهُ خَوْفًۭا وَطَمَعًا ۚ إِنَّ رَحْمَتَ ٱللَّٰهِ قَرِيبٌۭ مِّنَ ٱلْمُحْسِنِينَ

11:73:
قَالُوا۟ أَتَعْجَبِينَ مِنْ أَمْرِ ٱللَّٰهِ ۖ رَحْمَتُ ٱللَّٰهِ وَبَرَكَٰتُهُۥ عَلَيْكُمْ أَهْلَ ٱلْبَيْتِ ۚ إِنَّهُۥ حَمِيدٌۭ مَّجِيدٌۭ

30:50:
فَٱنظُرْ إِلَىٰ آثَٰرِ رَحْمَتِ ٱللَّٰهِ كَيْفَ يُحْيِ ٱلْأَرْضَ بَعْدَ مَوْتِهَا ۚ إِنَّ ذَٰلِكَ لَمُحْيِ ٱلْمَوْتَىٰ ۖ وَهُوَ عَلَىٰ كُلِّ شَىْءٍۢ قَدِيرٌۭ

I’ve noticed the same thing in non-Quranic Classical Arabic from around the same period, so it seems to be based on some specific writing rules and is not just an anomaly.

PhoeniX

I would love for your to enlighten me what those rules might be. As far as I can tell, the alternation is basically random in the Quran.

In inscription and papyri from around the same period رحمت الله is almost the exclusive selling.

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