Me and Glen Gordon have been brainstorming furiously about some of the bigger issues in Proto-Berber reconstructions on his blog.
A lot of the discussion ended up coming down to the prefixes of Berber nouns, and specifically the prefix *u- as in *ulβ 'heart' (or *ulv, when accepting Glen's suggestion for a changed PB orthography, which I won't yet, as long as I haven't discussed it on this blog).
Some evidence leads me to believe that this prefix *u- is originally from a *w-, that came to be vocalised as *u- in some way. We see this because Iwwellemeden əwəl 'heart'. Other evidence presents itself in *urə/ăγ (*urə/ăḳ) 'gold' which seems to be derived from a root *wrγ 'to be yellow'.
While this is promising, we do not yet understand the deeper underlying ways that PB *w interacts with other consonants and vowels. To get a sense just how difficult it is to understand what exactly is going on, I would like to discuss a certain class of Berber verbs today, the so C1C1C2 verbs. Such verbs have a geminated initial consonant and a second consonant. Prasse (1972-1974) believes such verbs to have originally been wC1C2, and he has a point. Because of the complex ablaut patterns of the verbal system, we get a a good view of the many different interections in different positions of *w with surrounding vowels and consonants.
But, before we start looking at a difficult class like C1C1C2 verbs, let' s first establish a general reconstruction of the C1C2C3 verbs the most 'unmarked' form. It should be noted that, in general, the verbal system of Berber is quite irregular, so it is not always easy to establish a regular system of reconstruction.
Let us use the root *KRZ 'to cultivate; to acquire'
For Proto-Berber we can (probably) reconstruct four tenses: Aorist, Perfect, Imperfect, Negative Perfect and Negative Imperfect.
For triradical roots the form is usually:
Aor. ăC1C2əC3 Perf. əC1C2ăC3 Impf. C1ăC2C2ăC3, Neg.Perf. əC1C2eC3, Neg.Impf. C1əC2C2əC3
So for the root KRZ its respective forms will look as follows:
Aor. *ăkrəz Perf. *əkrăz Impf. *kărrăz Neg.Perf. *əkrez Neg.Impf. *kərrəz
Even within this elegant system, we sometimes find irregularities in some languages. For example in the verb LMD 'to learn' (a loanword from Punic) we usually find this system as above, but the Middle Atlas variety described by Amaniss we find a different form for the Imperfect.
Aor. əlməd Perf. əlməd Impf. tt-ələmad Neg.Perf. ləmid (MA doesn't have a Neg.Impf.)
In Mali Touareg (Heath 2006) this verb behaves as expected.
The imperfective prefix *tt- often shows up in verbs that have two radicals, or whose first radical is somehow 'weak'. The root *ʔKR 'to steal' for example conjugates as follows:
Aor. *ăʔkər Perf. *əʔkăr Impf. *tt-ăʔkăr Neg.Perf. *əʔker Neg.Impf. *tt-əʔkər
Word with an initial long vowel (<*h?) behave in the same way.
So, since C1C1C2 verbs were originally *wC1C2, they technically have three radicals as well, so formally you would expect them to behave in the same way as a triradical root.
Let's take the root *KKS (<*WKS) 'to take away'
Aor. *ăkkəs Perf. *əkkăs Impf. *tt-ăkkăs Neg.Perf. *əkkes Neg.Impf. *tt-əkkəs
As you can see *w too is treated as a weak initial radical. Berber seems to have some avoidance of initial *w, *ʔ and long vowels (< *h?), but from these examples we can at least probably conclude that *ăwC and *əwC yield *ăCC and *əCC respectively.
Watchful readers may have noticed that there is not much evidence for a third consonant *w at all in the examples above. This is true, this suspcion is based on both the Verbal Noun formation and the verbal derivatons.
Verbal derivations work as follows *ss- is the causative prefix (no doubt familiar to those who have worked with Semitic) and *mm- is the reciprocal prefix. *ss- assimilates to any fricative in the root, and *mm- dissimilated to *nn- if there is an *mm- in the root. The passive prefix *tt-/*ttw- is also common and probably related to the *tt- prefix that you see in the weak-initial roots.
*ss-LMD 'to teach'
Aor. *əss-əlməd Perf. *ăss-əlmăd Impf. *əss-ălmad
*mm-LMD 'to get to know each other'
Aor. *ənn-ălmăd Perf. *ănn-əlmăd Impf. *tt-ănn-ălmăd
*ZZY 'to get better'
Aor. *ăzzəy Perf. *əzzăy Impf. *ətt-ăzzăy
*ss-ZZY 'to cure'
Aor. *əzz-uzăy Perf. *ăzz-uzăy Impf. *əzz-uzuy/*əzz-izuy
The variant *əzz-izuy as the impf. is quite common, and may be a dissimilation.
As you can see, the geminate is gone, and instead a u appears. This is the main reason why an initial radical *w is assumed (besides the verbal noun scheme of this type of verbs is uC1əC2).
So assuming that the *u is a regular reflex of *w in this context, can we understand why in the non-causative form we find a geminate and in the causative form we find a *u + single consonant?
Imposing the regular triradical vowel scheme of *ss-LMD on the once of *ss-WZY we would expect a hypothetical Pre-Proto-Berber paradigm:
Aor. **əss-əwzəy Perf. **ăss-əwzăy Impf. **əss-ăwzay
These forms definitely do not wrok perfectly. The aorist of *ss-WZY clearly has a final *ă. This in itself is quite surprising as ə-ə-ă is not a typicaly vowel pattern for the aorist.
As Kossmann shows in his Ayer Touareg grammar (pg. 57/58) Perf. vowel pattern *ă-ə-ă correspondes to *ə-ə-ə. While these vowel patterns are not directly assigned by him to causatives, the form of *ss-LMD seems to suggest that they do apply to to these derivations. (I'm pretty sure Kossmann wasn't the first to suggest this vowel pattern, nor is this the first publication to print this table, but I'm not sure who first proposed it).
The Perfect corresponds perfectly with *ss-LMD. The Imperfect differs quite a bit, as the 'full vowel' inserted before the last consonant in the WCC verbs is an *u not an *a. This almost looks as a sort of progressive vowel harmony. Let's, for the sake of the argument assume this is true, and let's assume that The Aor. form somehow innovated the final *ă, and that the Proto-Berber pattern followed the regular Aorist pattern *ə-ə-ə.
We are left with yet another problem, it would mean that əwC and ăwC yield *u, while earlier we established that these sequences yield əCC and ăCC.
The difference is, that this time there is a causative suffix *ss- in front of it. I don't find *ssə/ăwC > *ssuC a particularly convincing sound law, since nothing about the sound *ss motivates vocalisation. moreover the *mm- reciprocal causes the same vocalisation.
The thing *mm- and *ss- do have in common is that they're both geminate consonant prefixes (although this is not always the case in all Berber languages). Since these prefixes are geminate, and the person prefixes are not, in some way syllable weight or shape may play a role here.
It's almost too obvious to state, but because of the prefixes, the sequence ə/ăwC is always in a CVC context while in the non causative/reciprocal form it is sometimes in a VC context (1sg., 3pl.m./f. and the imperatives). But we would expect that the non-prefixed forms would then have an alternation between *ə/ăwC and *uC. Analogy could obviously play a role, but are the far more marginal 1sg., 3pl. and imperatives enough to influence, for example the commonly occuring 3sg.m. and 3sg.f.?
Another issue with this hypothesis is the question why the *tt- imperfective prefix doesn't cause vocalisation.
Also, if this hypothesis is correct (and I'm far from certain it is), we get in trouble with the verbal nouns of this type whose shape is *uCəC, this would mean we'd need an extra consonant prefixed (*w??) to get the desired syllable shape *wə/ăwCəC is not particularly elegant. Once again we can pull out the 'analogy' get-out-of-jail-free-card and say that the the original form was *awCəC and that the EA (état d'annexion) was *w-ăwCəC, and that the EA spread to the EL (état libre). But this is not entirely in line with what we know about triradical verbal nouns either which tend to have the shape *aC1C2aC3 and *aC1əC2C2uC3.
A final point that casts some doubt on the C1C1C2 verbs = wC1C2 verbs, is the fact that Proto-Berber has no issue with the sequence *ə/ăw or *ə/ăw in final position at all, where, without fail it is found in a CVC shape, without changing into *u (although it does in a great deal of Berber languages, comparative evidence shows this wasn't the case in Proto-Berber). But we should not that there indeed is a eerie absence of wC1C2 and yC1C2 roots.
To sum up:
While it is tempting to think that C1C1C2 verbs originally had an initial semi-vowel. It is almost impossible to find a defining context which motivated the assimlation of wC > CC on the one hand and a vocalisation of *ə/ăw > *u on the other hand. The Verbal nouns present a whole extra issue as their phonetic context seems more similar to the unprefixed forms of C1C1C2 verbs, while their reflex of *ə/ăw looks like a prefixed form.
Maybe the solution to this problem will not be available through internal reconstruction. Maybe, or knowledge of Semitic vocalic patterns can give us more insight. It is not outside of the realm of possibility that the Berber vocalic patterns underwent metathesis. Let's say if the Perfect triradical form actually corresponds to the Proto-Semitic perfect *C1aC2aC3 it would mean that *əC1C2ăC3 was originally *C1əC2ăC3 (vocalic problems aside). Then the causative form would correspond to the Proto-Semitic causative *S-vC1C2vC3, Proto-Berber *ss-əC1C2ăC3
So in a Pre-Proto-Berber stage we would have:
Stage 1: *wəzăy Causastive *ss-əwzăy.
Shift one: *əw > *u occurs.
Stage 2: *wəzăy Causastive *ss-uzăy
Shift two: vocalic metathesis occurs
Stage 3: *əwzăy Causastive *ss-uzăy
Shift three: assimilation of semi-vowel occurs
Proto-Berber *əzzăy Causastive *ss-uzăy
Would that work? Could it also account for the fact that the *tt- prefix does not cause this vocalisation of *u? I believe Proto-Semitic had *t-C1vC2vC3 > Arabic form VI t-CāCaC with a prefix *t.
Form VI is problematically reciprocal while form VII (*n- prefix ~ Berber *mm-?) is passive, which is the exact opposite of the Berber semantic distribution.
The solution is elegant, but I know nowhere near enough about Semitic vocalisation (and Proto-Afro-Asiatic for that matter) to confirm this hypothesis.
I hope this article hasn't become too rambly, and that, those who are interested can make sense of it. It's a difficult subject with a lot of different factors. Please let me know if anything is unclear and I'll attempt to rewrite it. I don't want you to break your head over some impossible formulation.
[EDIT] I just realized that in Semitic Linguistics, the Perfect is usually considered a secondary development from an original past participle, which explains that the suffix conjugation that goes with the perfect looks like the possesive conjugation. The 'true' form is the imperfect aC1C2iC3 with prefix conjugation (like Berber). So the clever scenario I came up with doesn't hold much ground, unless you want to assume a Berbero-Semiticsub-branch of Afro-Asiatic that had already developed this past participle class, after which Berber lost its suffix conjugation.
While possible, this is certainly a few too many steps with too little proof to feel entirely comfortable positing this. Alternatively it maybe be possible that the root of the perfect is similar to the Arabic form III, but I don't see the relation between transitive and perfect, nor do I think Arabic form III is reconstructable for Proto-Semitic.
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